Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh B3 năm học 2008

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ĐỀ THI MÔN VIẾT TIẾNG ANH B3-2008 
PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION B ( 60 minutes ) 
SECTION A : 
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each 
sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1-20 for the 
word or phrase you choose. 
 (20 points) 
1. I usually wear skirts, but today I.trousers. 
A. wear B. wears C. wearing D. am wearing 
2. Can you hear what he is. ? 
A. saying B. speaking C. telling D. talking 
3. This television program gives you the.. news. 
A. last B. latest C. least D. later 
4. I only.one mistake in last night’s test. 
A. made B. done C. did D. make 
5. They finished the work. 
A. successful B. unsuccessful C. successfully D. in successful 
6. It was past midnight, so there were.people in the street. 
A. few B. less C. any D. little 
7. To travel from England to Scotland, you.a passport. 
A. needn’t B. don’t need C. haven’t got D. mustn’t have 
8. It was a long film :. 
A. it bored B. it was bored C. I was bored D. I was boring 
9. He asked me if I.to swim across the river. 
A. could B. am able C. be able D. was able 
10. Where.these pictures.? – We took them in Japan. 
A. were/taken B. have/taken C. did/take D. do/take 
11. Last Saturday was.that we took a ride in the country. 
A. so beautiful B. such beautiful a day 
C. so beautiful day D. such a beautiful weather 
12. You can meet me.you like. 
A. soon B. always C. whenever D. whatever 
13. Their office.of three small rooms. 
A. contains B. numbers C. consists D. includes 
14. He went to school on time yesterday,.? 
A. was he B. wasn’t he C. did he D. didn’t he 
15. .you stop working so hard, you’ll become ill. 
A. If B. Unless C. When D. Until 
16. That lesson was much too difficult.understand. 
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A. for me B. for me to C. we could not D. for me not to 
17. Mrs. Brown was the first owner.won three prizes in the same 
show. 
A. her dog B. his dog C. who dog D. whose dog 
18. I.a letter when she phoned. 
A. write B. writes C. was writing D. had written 
19. Please tell me where Daisy is at the.? 
A. time B. hour C. second D. moment 
20. It was Friday afternoon and the shops were full.customers. 
A. by B. in C. of D. with 
SECTION B : 
In this section you will find after the reading passage a number of questions of 
unfinished statements about the passage , each with four suggested answers or ways of 
finishing . You must choose the one which you think fits best (10 points) 
 Jogging is a popular form of exercise and recreation in which a person runs at a 
steady , moderate pace. The actual pace depends on the individual’s ability , but it 
should be one at which the jogger can talk without becoming breathless. Since the 
mid-1960’s, millions of people in the United States and other countries have started to 
jog. The popularity of jogging stems from its healthful benefits and its simplicity. The 
only equipment needed is loose clothing and well-cushioned, flexible shoes that fit 
properly. 
 Jogging builds and maintains physical fitness by improving the function of the 
circulatory and respiratory systems. It strengthens leg muscles and aids in weight 
control. Jogging also helps relieve mental stress and provides an opportunity to enjoy 
the outdoors. 
 To obtain the full benefits of jogging , an individual should develop a program 
that includes at least three jogs of 2 miles every week. A beginner should start with 
short distances and gradually work up to 2 miles or more. At first, brisk walking may 
be substituted for periods of jogging. Persons more than 35 years old should have a 
complete medical examination before starting a jogging program. 
21. How can a jogger decide his proper pace ? 
A. By running at a steady pace. 
B. By talking with another jogger. 
C. By counting the pace according to his ability. 
D. By doing moderate jogs. 
22. Why do many people take up jogging ? 
A. It is easy to do. 
B. It helps people be healthier. 
C. Its equipment is cheap. 
D. It is a simple and healthful sport. 
23. What is the main idea of the 2nd paragraph ? 
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A. Jogging makes us healthier. 
B. The physical and mental benefits of jogging. 
C. Mental stress disappears when you jog. 
D. Jogging is a good way to be out of door. 
24. Which word is similar in meaning to brisk ? 
A. Quick 
B. Short 
C. Light 
D. Slow 
25. Which of the following statements is true ? 
A. Two miles is the shortest distance a jogger should cover a day. 
B. Six miles a week is recommended for any jogger. 
C. A medical examination is necessary for any jogger. 
D. Beginners should do short jogs rather than a long one. 
PAPER TWO : USE OF ENGLISH ( 60 minutes ) 
SECTION A : PASSAGE FOR GAP-FILL 
In this section you must find a word to complete the numbered blanks in the passage 
below. Use only ONE word for each blank. (15 points ) 
Here are some ways to help you to get a good night’s sleep. Firstly, don’t try 
too hard to (26)asleep because this will make you anxious and keep you 
awake. Secondly , don’t go to bed until you (27)sleepy. Sitting in bed 
awake just (28)you awake. If you cannot sleep (29)you 
go to bed, get up and do something relaxing for a while until you feel sleepy. 
 (30)a boring book, watching TV or writing a letter can all help to 
relax you. You shouldn’t keep looking at the clock, (31). If you know 
how much sleep you have lost, you will become worried and less able 
(32)sleep. Turning the clock around so that you cannot see it is better. 
Lastly, it is a good (33)to exercise during the day. A 20-minute walk 
(34)the morning will help you feel sleepier (35)bedtime. 
SECTION B : SENTENCE BUILDING 
Make all changes and additions necessary to produce, from the following sets of words 
and phrases, sentences which together make a complete letter. (10 points) 
Dear Diana, 
36. Thank you/ much / your letter / arrive / few days ago. 
37. It / be lovely / hear / you.. 
38. I/ be sorry / I not write / such / long time / but I/ be very busy 
39. As you know/ we buy / new house / September. 
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40. It / be/ very bad condition / and it need / a lot / work. 
41. We finish / most / it now/ and it look / very nice. 
42. Peter and I / decide / give / house-warming party/ May 3rd. 
43. You think / you / able / come ? 
44. Please give me / ring / let / know / you / make it. 
45. I / really / look forward / see you again. 
Love, Jenny 
SECTION C : SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION 
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as 
the sentence printed before it. (5 points) 
46. Susan felt sick, because she ate four cream cakes. 
 If Susan 
47. He couldn’t repair the broken vase. 
 The 
48. “ I’ve seen the film three times, Mary,” said George. 
 George told 
49. How long is it since they bought that house ? 
 When. 
50. There’s a spare bed in David’s room. 
 David’s room 
COMPOSITION : Describe the person you love best (10 points ) 
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PAPER THREE :LISTENING COMPREHENSION B (30 minutes) 
PART I. Listen and fill in the missing information. ( 10 points ) 
 The first advertisements (1)..on British TV in 1955. Thanks to the 
advertisements, (2)..are sold more, but some advertisements don’t 
(3)..the truth. 
 Today, most countries have got rules to (4)..advertising, but 
advertisers still make some very (5)..advertisements. They show us cars that 
travel as (6)..as a plane, bottles of perfume that are bigger than a house, or 
vitamins that make you as (7)..as a lion. (8)..their clothes and 
you’ll look like a (9)..star. Buy their football boots and you’ll play like a 
champion ! Of course we can’t (10)..it. 
PART II. Listen and choose the correct answer ( 10 points ) 
1. Where was the festival ? 
A. Reading B. Bristol C. York 
2. Where was Karen’s favourite band from ? 
 A. Uganda B. Colombia C. Korea 
3. Which kind of food doesn’t she mention ? 
 A. North African B. Mexican C. Turkish 
4. How many people were there ? 
 A. hundreds B. thousands C. a million 
5. What was the weather like at the festival on Saturday morning ? 
 A. dry and sunny B. cold and wet C. cloudy but warm 
6. What was the weather like on Sunday ? 
 A. dry and sunny B. cold and wet C. cloudy but warm 
7. Where were Karen and her friend ? 
 A. in a tent B. in a hotel C. in a caravan 
8. How long were they there ? 
 A. Friday to Sunday B. only on Saturday C. Saturday and Sunday 
_________________ 
Số phách 
: 
 Điểm CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 1 CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 2 
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KEYS TO TEST LEVEL B (INTERMIDIATE ) 
PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION 
SECTION A 
1. D 6.A 11. A 16.B 
2. A 7. B 12. C 17. D 
3.B 8. C 13. C 18. C 
4. A 9. D 14. D 19. D 
5. C 10.A 15. B 20. C 
 1 mark for each correct answer . Total : 20 
SECTION B 
21. B 22. D 23.B 24 A 25. D 
 2 marks for each correct answer. Total : 10 
Total marks for paper one : 30 
PAPER TWO :USE OF ENGLISH 
SECTION A 
 26. fall 27. feel 28. make 29. whenever 30. Reading 
 31. either 32. to 33. idea 34. in 35. at 
 1.5 marks for each correct word. Total : 15 
SECTION B 
36. Thank you very much for your letter which arrived a few days ago. 
37. It was lovely to hear from you. 
38. I’m sorry I haven’t written for such a long time but I’ve been very busy. 
39. As you know, we bought a new house in September. 
40. It was in very bad condition and it needed a lot of work. 
41. We have finished most of it now and it looks very nice. 
42. Peter and I have decided to give a house-warming party on May 3rd. 
43. Do you think you will be able to come ? 
44. Please give me a ring and let me know if you can make it. 
45. I’m really looking forward to seeing you again. 
1mark for each correct sentence. Total : 10 
SECTION C 
46. If Susan hadn’t eaten four cream cakes, she wouldn’t have felt sick. 
47. The broken vase couldn’t be repaired 
48. George told Mary that he had seen the film three times 
49. When did they buy that house ? 
50. David’s room has a spare bed. 
 1 mark for each correct sentence. Total : 5 
COMPOSITION : 10 marks 
Total marks for paper two : 40 
PAPER THREE : LISTENING COMPREHENSION 
PART 1 : 
1. appeared 2. products 3. tell 4. control 5. strange 
6. fast 7. strong 8. Wear 9. film 10. believe 
 1 mark for each correct answer. Total : 10 
PART 2 : 
1.A 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.C 8.A 
 1.25 marks for each correct answer. Total : 10 
Total mark for paper three : 20 
PAPER 4 : INTERVIEW : 10 marks 
Total marks for the Test : 100 
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